Quick Question

I don’t know the answer here (yes, yes, thank you, I rarely know the answers to any questions) so perhaps someone can help? Seumas Milne:

The third is an increase in tax on the highest earners as part of a
wider programme of action to reverse the grotesque growth of inequality
that has scarred Blair’s Britain.

When we measure inequality we usually use some variation of Gini. 0.35/0.36 is, off the top of my head, around and about the number for the UK. Leave aside for a moment whether it’s important or not, whether we can alter it very much and whether we ought to try or not.

Do we measure this before or after the interactions of the tax and benefit systems? Both are, at least I think they are, modestly (at least) progressive. So after would provide a lower number than before.

But I have a feeling that we actually measure it before. Thus, changing the tax system will do nothing to change the number being measured.

Can anyone confirm this? Or refute it?

2 responses

  1. Table 2 of this big pdf gives the details.
    http://www.statistics.gov.uk/downloads/theme_social/Taxes_Benefits_2005-2006/Taxes_Benefits_2005_06.pdf
    The Gini coefficient before taxes and benefits was 0.52 in 2005-06. After taxes (direct & indirect), it was 0.37.
    The figures have been pretty stable since the mid-90s.
    Tim adds: OK, thanks for that. So most of my post above is wibble. Nothing too surprising then….

  2. Seamus Milne forgot to mention “Means of Production”. Tut tut.

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