We are told repeatedly that social mobility has declined in the UK. That it is lower than in wonderful high tax societies like Sweden.
OK, so I went out to try and see if there were any papers that would allow me to see what might be the causes of this. I found this from The Sutton Trust (I’m not claiming to have done a thorough search, this is the first one on the subject that turned up in Google) and they make it quite clear that they think there is a causal relationship between lower educational opportunities for the poor and the decline in said social mobility.
The period studied (1958 cohort, 1970 cohort and partially a later one) coincide reasonably well with the destruction of the streamed education system. Well, OK, I would say that wouldn’t I?
However, there’s something else that puzzles me a great deal more. All the figures used are ratios of father to son earnings. But this time period also saw, for the first time ever, a huge explosion of female entry into the full time paid workforce. I can see no allowance being made for this factor at all. The highly paid professions were, in the 1960s and 70s, almost exclusively male (the 1958 cohort) and this has now changed where, in 2006 the entry cohorts into things like medicine and the law are majority female.
That there are 50% fewer such jobs available to males now….well, don’t we think that this will have some effect on income mobility for males? And if we’r going to have a paper on income mobility for males, shouldn’t we actually mention this?
So, a provocative thought (and yes, I would love it if people, even Jim, were to point me to more research): the decline in male income mobility is an artefact of greater female participation in the labour market, most specifically the way in which some if not many of the traditionally high paid professions have become feminized.
Update. The lead author on that paper very kindly answered an email question on this. As what is being measured is the income quartiles amongst males only, the influence of women in the labour market isn’t an issue.
The UK figures are on father’s income, the cross country comparisons on family, so that the two sets are not directly comparable but that’s very different from the issue I raise above.
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